[Cf. 1922 3:9-10, Gabler 3:10-11]
The mountains in question here are the Wicklow Hills, beautiful (if perhaps worn and stubby) mountainlets to the south & west of Dublin.
I should note there's another error here--Joyce deliberately writes "awaking" mountains, not "awakening" as we have it above. Awaking is an anachronism, rather, Joyce simply prefers it to it's more standard descendant. It's last cited use in the OED is 1870. Prior to that, is a use in 1620, and prior to that, 1611: Shakespeare, in The Winter's Tale. Follow the wikipedia link if you dare. We will be hearing more about this play in Chapter 9, but for now, suffice it to say that it involves fathers trying to return home, lost sons and daughters, changes of identity, etc.
Is Joyce deliberately invoking the Shakespeare play? or does he just like the condensed, archaic version of the word? Why choose!
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